Express a function as a power series if it respects some nice conditions












0












$begingroup$



Find all functions $f$ such that there is sequence $(a_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$ such that :
$$forall x in ]-1, 1[, sum_{n = 0}^infty a_nx^n = f(x)$$
$$forall k in mathbb{N}, k geq 2, fleft(frac{1}{k}right) = e^{-sqrt{k}}$$




Here are my thoughts :



First I guess we need to use that :



$$e^{-sqrt{x}} =sum_{k= 0 }^infty frac{(-1)^k x^{k/2}}{k!}$$



So we need to find a sequnece such that :



$$forall k geq 2, sum_{n = 0}^inftyfrac{ a_n }{k^n} = sum_{n= 0 }^infty frac{(-1)^n k^{n/2}}{n!}$$



But from here I don't what to do. I know that two power series are equal if there is a segment on which there are equal. Here it's not the case, but these two power series have infinitely many points where they have the same value, but it's not sufficient to conclude that these power series are equal right ?



Moreover $0$ is an accumulation point of ${1/k mid k geq 2}$ so maybe it means that the two series are equal ? Since it means we can't find an open ball around $0$ such that the series are not equals, but the problem is that the theorem I know is only about a segment... So is what I am saying is true or they are nice counter-examples ?



Thank you !










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    0












    $begingroup$



    Find all functions $f$ such that there is sequence $(a_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$ such that :
    $$forall x in ]-1, 1[, sum_{n = 0}^infty a_nx^n = f(x)$$
    $$forall k in mathbb{N}, k geq 2, fleft(frac{1}{k}right) = e^{-sqrt{k}}$$




    Here are my thoughts :



    First I guess we need to use that :



    $$e^{-sqrt{x}} =sum_{k= 0 }^infty frac{(-1)^k x^{k/2}}{k!}$$



    So we need to find a sequnece such that :



    $$forall k geq 2, sum_{n = 0}^inftyfrac{ a_n }{k^n} = sum_{n= 0 }^infty frac{(-1)^n k^{n/2}}{n!}$$



    But from here I don't what to do. I know that two power series are equal if there is a segment on which there are equal. Here it's not the case, but these two power series have infinitely many points where they have the same value, but it's not sufficient to conclude that these power series are equal right ?



    Moreover $0$ is an accumulation point of ${1/k mid k geq 2}$ so maybe it means that the two series are equal ? Since it means we can't find an open ball around $0$ such that the series are not equals, but the problem is that the theorem I know is only about a segment... So is what I am saying is true or they are nice counter-examples ?



    Thank you !










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$



      Find all functions $f$ such that there is sequence $(a_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$ such that :
      $$forall x in ]-1, 1[, sum_{n = 0}^infty a_nx^n = f(x)$$
      $$forall k in mathbb{N}, k geq 2, fleft(frac{1}{k}right) = e^{-sqrt{k}}$$




      Here are my thoughts :



      First I guess we need to use that :



      $$e^{-sqrt{x}} =sum_{k= 0 }^infty frac{(-1)^k x^{k/2}}{k!}$$



      So we need to find a sequnece such that :



      $$forall k geq 2, sum_{n = 0}^inftyfrac{ a_n }{k^n} = sum_{n= 0 }^infty frac{(-1)^n k^{n/2}}{n!}$$



      But from here I don't what to do. I know that two power series are equal if there is a segment on which there are equal. Here it's not the case, but these two power series have infinitely many points where they have the same value, but it's not sufficient to conclude that these power series are equal right ?



      Moreover $0$ is an accumulation point of ${1/k mid k geq 2}$ so maybe it means that the two series are equal ? Since it means we can't find an open ball around $0$ such that the series are not equals, but the problem is that the theorem I know is only about a segment... So is what I am saying is true or they are nice counter-examples ?



      Thank you !










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$





      Find all functions $f$ such that there is sequence $(a_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$ such that :
      $$forall x in ]-1, 1[, sum_{n = 0}^infty a_nx^n = f(x)$$
      $$forall k in mathbb{N}, k geq 2, fleft(frac{1}{k}right) = e^{-sqrt{k}}$$




      Here are my thoughts :



      First I guess we need to use that :



      $$e^{-sqrt{x}} =sum_{k= 0 }^infty frac{(-1)^k x^{k/2}}{k!}$$



      So we need to find a sequnece such that :



      $$forall k geq 2, sum_{n = 0}^inftyfrac{ a_n }{k^n} = sum_{n= 0 }^infty frac{(-1)^n k^{n/2}}{n!}$$



      But from here I don't what to do. I know that two power series are equal if there is a segment on which there are equal. Here it's not the case, but these two power series have infinitely many points where they have the same value, but it's not sufficient to conclude that these power series are equal right ?



      Moreover $0$ is an accumulation point of ${1/k mid k geq 2}$ so maybe it means that the two series are equal ? Since it means we can't find an open ball around $0$ such that the series are not equals, but the problem is that the theorem I know is only about a segment... So is what I am saying is true or they are nice counter-examples ?



      Thank you !







      real-analysis calculus sequences-and-series power-series






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      edited Jan 28 at 22:45









      clathratus

      5,0011438




      5,0011438










      asked Jan 28 at 22:41









      dghkgfzyukzdghkgfzyukz

      16612




      16612






















          2 Answers
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          $begingroup$

          There is no such function. Of course, the null function is no such function. On the other hand,$$a_0=f(0)=lim_{ktoinfty}fleft(frac1kright)=lim_{ktoinfty}e^{-sqrt k}=0.$$So, there is a smallest $Ninmathbb N$ such that $a_Nneq0$. But then$$lim_{ktoinfty}frac{leftlvert fleft(frac1kright)rightrvert}{frac1{k^N}}=lvert a_Nrvertneq0,$$whereas$$lim_{ktoinfty}frac{e^{-sqrt k}}{frac1{k^N}}=lim_{ktoinfty}frac{k^N}{e^{sqrt k}}=0.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











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          • $begingroup$
            That's clever !
            $endgroup$
            – Thinking
            Jan 28 at 23:06



















          1












          $begingroup$

          Assume the existence of such $f$, which is not identically zero.



          Since $f(0)=lim_{kto infty}f(1/k)=lim_{kto infty}e^{-sqrt k}=0$, $f$ has a zero at $x=0$. Assume the zero is of order $(m-1)inmathbb N^+$.



          From the series expansion, we know $$lim_{xto 0}frac{f(x)}{x^m}=1$$



          Thus, we expect
          $$lim_{xto 0}frac{f(x)}{x^m}=lim_{ktoinfty}k^m f(1/k)
          =lim_{ktoinfty}k^m e^{-sqrt k}color{red}{=}1$$



          However, there is no $m$ that can satisfy the red equality. Therefore a contradiction is created and we conclude that such $f$ does not exist.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            This is the same idea as José Carlos Santos, but this is really smart, thank you !
            $endgroup$
            – dghkgfzyukz
            Jan 28 at 23:09






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @dghkgfzyukz I typed too slowly...
            $endgroup$
            – Szeto
            Jan 28 at 23:11












          Your Answer





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          2 Answers
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          2 Answers
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          active

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          active

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          active

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          3












          $begingroup$

          There is no such function. Of course, the null function is no such function. On the other hand,$$a_0=f(0)=lim_{ktoinfty}fleft(frac1kright)=lim_{ktoinfty}e^{-sqrt k}=0.$$So, there is a smallest $Ninmathbb N$ such that $a_Nneq0$. But then$$lim_{ktoinfty}frac{leftlvert fleft(frac1kright)rightrvert}{frac1{k^N}}=lvert a_Nrvertneq0,$$whereas$$lim_{ktoinfty}frac{e^{-sqrt k}}{frac1{k^N}}=lim_{ktoinfty}frac{k^N}{e^{sqrt k}}=0.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            That's clever !
            $endgroup$
            – Thinking
            Jan 28 at 23:06
















          3












          $begingroup$

          There is no such function. Of course, the null function is no such function. On the other hand,$$a_0=f(0)=lim_{ktoinfty}fleft(frac1kright)=lim_{ktoinfty}e^{-sqrt k}=0.$$So, there is a smallest $Ninmathbb N$ such that $a_Nneq0$. But then$$lim_{ktoinfty}frac{leftlvert fleft(frac1kright)rightrvert}{frac1{k^N}}=lvert a_Nrvertneq0,$$whereas$$lim_{ktoinfty}frac{e^{-sqrt k}}{frac1{k^N}}=lim_{ktoinfty}frac{k^N}{e^{sqrt k}}=0.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            That's clever !
            $endgroup$
            – Thinking
            Jan 28 at 23:06














          3












          3








          3





          $begingroup$

          There is no such function. Of course, the null function is no such function. On the other hand,$$a_0=f(0)=lim_{ktoinfty}fleft(frac1kright)=lim_{ktoinfty}e^{-sqrt k}=0.$$So, there is a smallest $Ninmathbb N$ such that $a_Nneq0$. But then$$lim_{ktoinfty}frac{leftlvert fleft(frac1kright)rightrvert}{frac1{k^N}}=lvert a_Nrvertneq0,$$whereas$$lim_{ktoinfty}frac{e^{-sqrt k}}{frac1{k^N}}=lim_{ktoinfty}frac{k^N}{e^{sqrt k}}=0.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          There is no such function. Of course, the null function is no such function. On the other hand,$$a_0=f(0)=lim_{ktoinfty}fleft(frac1kright)=lim_{ktoinfty}e^{-sqrt k}=0.$$So, there is a smallest $Ninmathbb N$ such that $a_Nneq0$. But then$$lim_{ktoinfty}frac{leftlvert fleft(frac1kright)rightrvert}{frac1{k^N}}=lvert a_Nrvertneq0,$$whereas$$lim_{ktoinfty}frac{e^{-sqrt k}}{frac1{k^N}}=lim_{ktoinfty}frac{k^N}{e^{sqrt k}}=0.$$







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jan 29 at 14:54

























          answered Jan 28 at 23:03









          José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos

          171k23132240




          171k23132240












          • $begingroup$
            That's clever !
            $endgroup$
            – Thinking
            Jan 28 at 23:06


















          • $begingroup$
            That's clever !
            $endgroup$
            – Thinking
            Jan 28 at 23:06
















          $begingroup$
          That's clever !
          $endgroup$
          – Thinking
          Jan 28 at 23:06




          $begingroup$
          That's clever !
          $endgroup$
          – Thinking
          Jan 28 at 23:06











          1












          $begingroup$

          Assume the existence of such $f$, which is not identically zero.



          Since $f(0)=lim_{kto infty}f(1/k)=lim_{kto infty}e^{-sqrt k}=0$, $f$ has a zero at $x=0$. Assume the zero is of order $(m-1)inmathbb N^+$.



          From the series expansion, we know $$lim_{xto 0}frac{f(x)}{x^m}=1$$



          Thus, we expect
          $$lim_{xto 0}frac{f(x)}{x^m}=lim_{ktoinfty}k^m f(1/k)
          =lim_{ktoinfty}k^m e^{-sqrt k}color{red}{=}1$$



          However, there is no $m$ that can satisfy the red equality. Therefore a contradiction is created and we conclude that such $f$ does not exist.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            This is the same idea as José Carlos Santos, but this is really smart, thank you !
            $endgroup$
            – dghkgfzyukz
            Jan 28 at 23:09






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @dghkgfzyukz I typed too slowly...
            $endgroup$
            – Szeto
            Jan 28 at 23:11
















          1












          $begingroup$

          Assume the existence of such $f$, which is not identically zero.



          Since $f(0)=lim_{kto infty}f(1/k)=lim_{kto infty}e^{-sqrt k}=0$, $f$ has a zero at $x=0$. Assume the zero is of order $(m-1)inmathbb N^+$.



          From the series expansion, we know $$lim_{xto 0}frac{f(x)}{x^m}=1$$



          Thus, we expect
          $$lim_{xto 0}frac{f(x)}{x^m}=lim_{ktoinfty}k^m f(1/k)
          =lim_{ktoinfty}k^m e^{-sqrt k}color{red}{=}1$$



          However, there is no $m$ that can satisfy the red equality. Therefore a contradiction is created and we conclude that such $f$ does not exist.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            This is the same idea as José Carlos Santos, but this is really smart, thank you !
            $endgroup$
            – dghkgfzyukz
            Jan 28 at 23:09






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @dghkgfzyukz I typed too slowly...
            $endgroup$
            – Szeto
            Jan 28 at 23:11














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          Assume the existence of such $f$, which is not identically zero.



          Since $f(0)=lim_{kto infty}f(1/k)=lim_{kto infty}e^{-sqrt k}=0$, $f$ has a zero at $x=0$. Assume the zero is of order $(m-1)inmathbb N^+$.



          From the series expansion, we know $$lim_{xto 0}frac{f(x)}{x^m}=1$$



          Thus, we expect
          $$lim_{xto 0}frac{f(x)}{x^m}=lim_{ktoinfty}k^m f(1/k)
          =lim_{ktoinfty}k^m e^{-sqrt k}color{red}{=}1$$



          However, there is no $m$ that can satisfy the red equality. Therefore a contradiction is created and we conclude that such $f$ does not exist.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Assume the existence of such $f$, which is not identically zero.



          Since $f(0)=lim_{kto infty}f(1/k)=lim_{kto infty}e^{-sqrt k}=0$, $f$ has a zero at $x=0$. Assume the zero is of order $(m-1)inmathbb N^+$.



          From the series expansion, we know $$lim_{xto 0}frac{f(x)}{x^m}=1$$



          Thus, we expect
          $$lim_{xto 0}frac{f(x)}{x^m}=lim_{ktoinfty}k^m f(1/k)
          =lim_{ktoinfty}k^m e^{-sqrt k}color{red}{=}1$$



          However, there is no $m$ that can satisfy the red equality. Therefore a contradiction is created and we conclude that such $f$ does not exist.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jan 28 at 23:12

























          answered Jan 28 at 23:08









          SzetoSzeto

          6,7162927




          6,7162927












          • $begingroup$
            This is the same idea as José Carlos Santos, but this is really smart, thank you !
            $endgroup$
            – dghkgfzyukz
            Jan 28 at 23:09






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @dghkgfzyukz I typed too slowly...
            $endgroup$
            – Szeto
            Jan 28 at 23:11


















          • $begingroup$
            This is the same idea as José Carlos Santos, but this is really smart, thank you !
            $endgroup$
            – dghkgfzyukz
            Jan 28 at 23:09






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @dghkgfzyukz I typed too slowly...
            $endgroup$
            – Szeto
            Jan 28 at 23:11
















          $begingroup$
          This is the same idea as José Carlos Santos, but this is really smart, thank you !
          $endgroup$
          – dghkgfzyukz
          Jan 28 at 23:09




          $begingroup$
          This is the same idea as José Carlos Santos, but this is really smart, thank you !
          $endgroup$
          – dghkgfzyukz
          Jan 28 at 23:09




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          @dghkgfzyukz I typed too slowly...
          $endgroup$
          – Szeto
          Jan 28 at 23:11




          $begingroup$
          @dghkgfzyukz I typed too slowly...
          $endgroup$
          – Szeto
          Jan 28 at 23:11


















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