Prove that an abelian group of order $pq$, with $(p, q) = 1$ is cyclic if it contains elements of order $p$...












-2












$begingroup$


Let $G$ be an abelian group of order $pq$, with $gcd(p, q) = 1$.



Assume there exists
$a, b in G$ such that $|a| = p, |b| = q$. Prove that $G$ is cyclic.










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  • $begingroup$
    i need help, i do not know as start
    $endgroup$
    – Juan David Cardona Gutierrez
    Aug 7 '18 at 16:08






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    $ab?{}{}{}{}{}$
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Aug 7 '18 at 16:08










  • $begingroup$
    i do not understand you
    $endgroup$
    – Juan David Cardona Gutierrez
    Aug 7 '18 at 16:10










  • $begingroup$
    obviously is gcd( p, q) = 1
    $endgroup$
    – Juan David Cardona Gutierrez
    Aug 7 '18 at 16:11






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Batominovski you can get the answer by following this recipe: math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/28795/…
    $endgroup$
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Aug 7 '18 at 16:45
















-2












$begingroup$


Let $G$ be an abelian group of order $pq$, with $gcd(p, q) = 1$.



Assume there exists
$a, b in G$ such that $|a| = p, |b| = q$. Prove that $G$ is cyclic.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    i need help, i do not know as start
    $endgroup$
    – Juan David Cardona Gutierrez
    Aug 7 '18 at 16:08






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    $ab?{}{}{}{}{}$
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Aug 7 '18 at 16:08










  • $begingroup$
    i do not understand you
    $endgroup$
    – Juan David Cardona Gutierrez
    Aug 7 '18 at 16:10










  • $begingroup$
    obviously is gcd( p, q) = 1
    $endgroup$
    – Juan David Cardona Gutierrez
    Aug 7 '18 at 16:11






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Batominovski you can get the answer by following this recipe: math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/28795/…
    $endgroup$
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Aug 7 '18 at 16:45














-2












-2








-2


1



$begingroup$


Let $G$ be an abelian group of order $pq$, with $gcd(p, q) = 1$.



Assume there exists
$a, b in G$ such that $|a| = p, |b| = q$. Prove that $G$ is cyclic.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $G$ be an abelian group of order $pq$, with $gcd(p, q) = 1$.



Assume there exists
$a, b in G$ such that $|a| = p, |b| = q$. Prove that $G$ is cyclic.







abstract-algebra group-theory






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 8 '18 at 0:45









Alan Wang

4,8921133




4,8921133










asked Aug 7 '18 at 16:07









Juan David Cardona GutierrezJuan David Cardona Gutierrez

12




12












  • $begingroup$
    i need help, i do not know as start
    $endgroup$
    – Juan David Cardona Gutierrez
    Aug 7 '18 at 16:08






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    $ab?{}{}{}{}{}$
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Aug 7 '18 at 16:08










  • $begingroup$
    i do not understand you
    $endgroup$
    – Juan David Cardona Gutierrez
    Aug 7 '18 at 16:10










  • $begingroup$
    obviously is gcd( p, q) = 1
    $endgroup$
    – Juan David Cardona Gutierrez
    Aug 7 '18 at 16:11






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Batominovski you can get the answer by following this recipe: math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/28795/…
    $endgroup$
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Aug 7 '18 at 16:45


















  • $begingroup$
    i need help, i do not know as start
    $endgroup$
    – Juan David Cardona Gutierrez
    Aug 7 '18 at 16:08






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    $ab?{}{}{}{}{}$
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Aug 7 '18 at 16:08










  • $begingroup$
    i do not understand you
    $endgroup$
    – Juan David Cardona Gutierrez
    Aug 7 '18 at 16:10










  • $begingroup$
    obviously is gcd( p, q) = 1
    $endgroup$
    – Juan David Cardona Gutierrez
    Aug 7 '18 at 16:11






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Batominovski you can get the answer by following this recipe: math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/28795/…
    $endgroup$
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Aug 7 '18 at 16:45
















$begingroup$
i need help, i do not know as start
$endgroup$
– Juan David Cardona Gutierrez
Aug 7 '18 at 16:08




$begingroup$
i need help, i do not know as start
$endgroup$
– Juan David Cardona Gutierrez
Aug 7 '18 at 16:08




3




3




$begingroup$
$ab?{}{}{}{}{}$
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Aug 7 '18 at 16:08




$begingroup$
$ab?{}{}{}{}{}$
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Aug 7 '18 at 16:08












$begingroup$
i do not understand you
$endgroup$
– Juan David Cardona Gutierrez
Aug 7 '18 at 16:10




$begingroup$
i do not understand you
$endgroup$
– Juan David Cardona Gutierrez
Aug 7 '18 at 16:10












$begingroup$
obviously is gcd( p, q) = 1
$endgroup$
– Juan David Cardona Gutierrez
Aug 7 '18 at 16:11




$begingroup$
obviously is gcd( p, q) = 1
$endgroup$
– Juan David Cardona Gutierrez
Aug 7 '18 at 16:11




1




1




$begingroup$
@Batominovski you can get the answer by following this recipe: math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/28795/…
$endgroup$
– Arnaud Mortier
Aug 7 '18 at 16:45




$begingroup$
@Batominovski you can get the answer by following this recipe: math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/28795/…
$endgroup$
– Arnaud Mortier
Aug 7 '18 at 16:45










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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0












$begingroup$

Let $H=langle a rangle $ and $K=langle b rangle$.

Note that $Hcap K=1$.

By product formula, $|HK|=|H||K|=pq=|G|$. Hence $G=HK$.

Since $H$ and $K$ are both normal subgroups of $G$, $Gcong Htimes Kcong Bbb{Z}_ptimes Bbb{Z}_q$.

Since $p$ and $q$ are relatively prime, $Gcong Bbb{Z}_{pq}$ and hence $G$ is cyclic.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Yeah, your second suggestion is way easier, because it requires zero knowledge of internal direct product business and $G$ is abelian, so computing the order of $ab$ is a snap.
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Aug 7 '18 at 18:35










  • $begingroup$
    How come that the divisors of $pq$ are only $1,p,q,pq$ when you only know that $gcd(p,q)$=1? Take for instance $p=8$ and $q=9$.
    $endgroup$
    – Traveler
    Jan 27 at 2:10












  • $begingroup$
    @Traveler Yeah you are right. I here assumed that $p$ and $q$ are both prime numbers.
    $endgroup$
    – Alan Wang
    Jan 27 at 2:25











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$begingroup$

Let $H=langle a rangle $ and $K=langle b rangle$.

Note that $Hcap K=1$.

By product formula, $|HK|=|H||K|=pq=|G|$. Hence $G=HK$.

Since $H$ and $K$ are both normal subgroups of $G$, $Gcong Htimes Kcong Bbb{Z}_ptimes Bbb{Z}_q$.

Since $p$ and $q$ are relatively prime, $Gcong Bbb{Z}_{pq}$ and hence $G$ is cyclic.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Yeah, your second suggestion is way easier, because it requires zero knowledge of internal direct product business and $G$ is abelian, so computing the order of $ab$ is a snap.
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Aug 7 '18 at 18:35










  • $begingroup$
    How come that the divisors of $pq$ are only $1,p,q,pq$ when you only know that $gcd(p,q)$=1? Take for instance $p=8$ and $q=9$.
    $endgroup$
    – Traveler
    Jan 27 at 2:10












  • $begingroup$
    @Traveler Yeah you are right. I here assumed that $p$ and $q$ are both prime numbers.
    $endgroup$
    – Alan Wang
    Jan 27 at 2:25
















0












$begingroup$

Let $H=langle a rangle $ and $K=langle b rangle$.

Note that $Hcap K=1$.

By product formula, $|HK|=|H||K|=pq=|G|$. Hence $G=HK$.

Since $H$ and $K$ are both normal subgroups of $G$, $Gcong Htimes Kcong Bbb{Z}_ptimes Bbb{Z}_q$.

Since $p$ and $q$ are relatively prime, $Gcong Bbb{Z}_{pq}$ and hence $G$ is cyclic.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Yeah, your second suggestion is way easier, because it requires zero knowledge of internal direct product business and $G$ is abelian, so computing the order of $ab$ is a snap.
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Aug 7 '18 at 18:35










  • $begingroup$
    How come that the divisors of $pq$ are only $1,p,q,pq$ when you only know that $gcd(p,q)$=1? Take for instance $p=8$ and $q=9$.
    $endgroup$
    – Traveler
    Jan 27 at 2:10












  • $begingroup$
    @Traveler Yeah you are right. I here assumed that $p$ and $q$ are both prime numbers.
    $endgroup$
    – Alan Wang
    Jan 27 at 2:25














0












0








0





$begingroup$

Let $H=langle a rangle $ and $K=langle b rangle$.

Note that $Hcap K=1$.

By product formula, $|HK|=|H||K|=pq=|G|$. Hence $G=HK$.

Since $H$ and $K$ are both normal subgroups of $G$, $Gcong Htimes Kcong Bbb{Z}_ptimes Bbb{Z}_q$.

Since $p$ and $q$ are relatively prime, $Gcong Bbb{Z}_{pq}$ and hence $G$ is cyclic.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



Let $H=langle a rangle $ and $K=langle b rangle$.

Note that $Hcap K=1$.

By product formula, $|HK|=|H||K|=pq=|G|$. Hence $G=HK$.

Since $H$ and $K$ are both normal subgroups of $G$, $Gcong Htimes Kcong Bbb{Z}_ptimes Bbb{Z}_q$.

Since $p$ and $q$ are relatively prime, $Gcong Bbb{Z}_{pq}$ and hence $G$ is cyclic.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Jan 27 at 2:26

























answered Aug 7 '18 at 16:16









Alan WangAlan Wang

4,8921133




4,8921133












  • $begingroup$
    Yeah, your second suggestion is way easier, because it requires zero knowledge of internal direct product business and $G$ is abelian, so computing the order of $ab$ is a snap.
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Aug 7 '18 at 18:35










  • $begingroup$
    How come that the divisors of $pq$ are only $1,p,q,pq$ when you only know that $gcd(p,q)$=1? Take for instance $p=8$ and $q=9$.
    $endgroup$
    – Traveler
    Jan 27 at 2:10












  • $begingroup$
    @Traveler Yeah you are right. I here assumed that $p$ and $q$ are both prime numbers.
    $endgroup$
    – Alan Wang
    Jan 27 at 2:25


















  • $begingroup$
    Yeah, your second suggestion is way easier, because it requires zero knowledge of internal direct product business and $G$ is abelian, so computing the order of $ab$ is a snap.
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Aug 7 '18 at 18:35










  • $begingroup$
    How come that the divisors of $pq$ are only $1,p,q,pq$ when you only know that $gcd(p,q)$=1? Take for instance $p=8$ and $q=9$.
    $endgroup$
    – Traveler
    Jan 27 at 2:10












  • $begingroup$
    @Traveler Yeah you are right. I here assumed that $p$ and $q$ are both prime numbers.
    $endgroup$
    – Alan Wang
    Jan 27 at 2:25
















$begingroup$
Yeah, your second suggestion is way easier, because it requires zero knowledge of internal direct product business and $G$ is abelian, so computing the order of $ab$ is a snap.
$endgroup$
– Randall
Aug 7 '18 at 18:35




$begingroup$
Yeah, your second suggestion is way easier, because it requires zero knowledge of internal direct product business and $G$ is abelian, so computing the order of $ab$ is a snap.
$endgroup$
– Randall
Aug 7 '18 at 18:35












$begingroup$
How come that the divisors of $pq$ are only $1,p,q,pq$ when you only know that $gcd(p,q)$=1? Take for instance $p=8$ and $q=9$.
$endgroup$
– Traveler
Jan 27 at 2:10






$begingroup$
How come that the divisors of $pq$ are only $1,p,q,pq$ when you only know that $gcd(p,q)$=1? Take for instance $p=8$ and $q=9$.
$endgroup$
– Traveler
Jan 27 at 2:10














$begingroup$
@Traveler Yeah you are right. I here assumed that $p$ and $q$ are both prime numbers.
$endgroup$
– Alan Wang
Jan 27 at 2:25




$begingroup$
@Traveler Yeah you are right. I here assumed that $p$ and $q$ are both prime numbers.
$endgroup$
– Alan Wang
Jan 27 at 2:25


















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