prove $(n)$ prime ideal of $mathbb{Z}$ iff $n$ is prime or zero
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prove $(n)$ prime ideal of $mathbb{Z}$ iff $n$ is prime or zero
Defintions
Def of prime Ideal (n)
$$ abin (n) implies ain(n) vee bin(n) $$
Def 1] integer n is prime if $n neq 0,pm 1 $ and only divisors are $pm n,pm 1$
Def 2 of n is prime] If $nneq0,pm1$ only divisors of n are $pm1,pm n$
$$ n|ab implies n|a vee n|b $$
$Rightarrow $] (Prime Ideal $(n)$ of $mathbb{Z} $$Rightarrow$ $n$ prime or zero)
Now consider the case where $(n)neq (0)$. that is $nneq 0$
Using the def of prime Ideals $$begin{aligned} ab in (n) implies a in(n) vee b in (n) end{aligned} $$
Well, If an element $xin(n) iff x=q*n iff n|x$
$$n|ab implies n|a vee n|b$$
So, $n$ is prime ,nonzero.
In the case that $(n)=(0)$ clearly $n=0$ since there are no zero divisors in $mathbb{Z}$
$Leftarrow$] (n is prime or zero $Rightarrow $ $(n)$ is a prime ideal of $mathbb{Z}$)
Consider the case where $p is prime$ so $nneq 0, pm1$
$$ begin{aligned}
n|ab &implies n|a vee n|b \
ab in (n) &implies a in (n) vee bin(n) end{aligned}$$
in the case $n=0$, since $mathbb{Z}$ has no zero divisors
$$ab=0 implies a=0 vee b=0 $$
So (0) is a prime ideal.
Concern if this prove holds, also would be surprised if this question is not out there in this site. Did a search and clicked on similar questions and could not find it.And of course any other ways to prove it.
abstract-algebra prime-numbers ideals maximal-and-prime-ideals
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up vote
5
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prove $(n)$ prime ideal of $mathbb{Z}$ iff $n$ is prime or zero
Defintions
Def of prime Ideal (n)
$$ abin (n) implies ain(n) vee bin(n) $$
Def 1] integer n is prime if $n neq 0,pm 1 $ and only divisors are $pm n,pm 1$
Def 2 of n is prime] If $nneq0,pm1$ only divisors of n are $pm1,pm n$
$$ n|ab implies n|a vee n|b $$
$Rightarrow $] (Prime Ideal $(n)$ of $mathbb{Z} $$Rightarrow$ $n$ prime or zero)
Now consider the case where $(n)neq (0)$. that is $nneq 0$
Using the def of prime Ideals $$begin{aligned} ab in (n) implies a in(n) vee b in (n) end{aligned} $$
Well, If an element $xin(n) iff x=q*n iff n|x$
$$n|ab implies n|a vee n|b$$
So, $n$ is prime ,nonzero.
In the case that $(n)=(0)$ clearly $n=0$ since there are no zero divisors in $mathbb{Z}$
$Leftarrow$] (n is prime or zero $Rightarrow $ $(n)$ is a prime ideal of $mathbb{Z}$)
Consider the case where $p is prime$ so $nneq 0, pm1$
$$ begin{aligned}
n|ab &implies n|a vee n|b \
ab in (n) &implies a in (n) vee bin(n) end{aligned}$$
in the case $n=0$, since $mathbb{Z}$ has no zero divisors
$$ab=0 implies a=0 vee b=0 $$
So (0) is a prime ideal.
Concern if this prove holds, also would be surprised if this question is not out there in this site. Did a search and clicked on similar questions and could not find it.And of course any other ways to prove it.
abstract-algebra prime-numbers ideals maximal-and-prime-ideals
1
Can you use the fact that $mathbb{Z}/(n)$ is a field if $n$ is prime?
– Brandon Thomas Van Over
Dec 8 '15 at 21:56
$Z/(n)$ is a field iff $(n)$ is a maximal. So every maximal is a prime that is $(n)$ is prime. Thanks @SirJective :)
– Tiger Blood
Dec 8 '15 at 22:06
add a comment |
up vote
5
down vote
favorite
up vote
5
down vote
favorite
prove $(n)$ prime ideal of $mathbb{Z}$ iff $n$ is prime or zero
Defintions
Def of prime Ideal (n)
$$ abin (n) implies ain(n) vee bin(n) $$
Def 1] integer n is prime if $n neq 0,pm 1 $ and only divisors are $pm n,pm 1$
Def 2 of n is prime] If $nneq0,pm1$ only divisors of n are $pm1,pm n$
$$ n|ab implies n|a vee n|b $$
$Rightarrow $] (Prime Ideal $(n)$ of $mathbb{Z} $$Rightarrow$ $n$ prime or zero)
Now consider the case where $(n)neq (0)$. that is $nneq 0$
Using the def of prime Ideals $$begin{aligned} ab in (n) implies a in(n) vee b in (n) end{aligned} $$
Well, If an element $xin(n) iff x=q*n iff n|x$
$$n|ab implies n|a vee n|b$$
So, $n$ is prime ,nonzero.
In the case that $(n)=(0)$ clearly $n=0$ since there are no zero divisors in $mathbb{Z}$
$Leftarrow$] (n is prime or zero $Rightarrow $ $(n)$ is a prime ideal of $mathbb{Z}$)
Consider the case where $p is prime$ so $nneq 0, pm1$
$$ begin{aligned}
n|ab &implies n|a vee n|b \
ab in (n) &implies a in (n) vee bin(n) end{aligned}$$
in the case $n=0$, since $mathbb{Z}$ has no zero divisors
$$ab=0 implies a=0 vee b=0 $$
So (0) is a prime ideal.
Concern if this prove holds, also would be surprised if this question is not out there in this site. Did a search and clicked on similar questions and could not find it.And of course any other ways to prove it.
abstract-algebra prime-numbers ideals maximal-and-prime-ideals
prove $(n)$ prime ideal of $mathbb{Z}$ iff $n$ is prime or zero
Defintions
Def of prime Ideal (n)
$$ abin (n) implies ain(n) vee bin(n) $$
Def 1] integer n is prime if $n neq 0,pm 1 $ and only divisors are $pm n,pm 1$
Def 2 of n is prime] If $nneq0,pm1$ only divisors of n are $pm1,pm n$
$$ n|ab implies n|a vee n|b $$
$Rightarrow $] (Prime Ideal $(n)$ of $mathbb{Z} $$Rightarrow$ $n$ prime or zero)
Now consider the case where $(n)neq (0)$. that is $nneq 0$
Using the def of prime Ideals $$begin{aligned} ab in (n) implies a in(n) vee b in (n) end{aligned} $$
Well, If an element $xin(n) iff x=q*n iff n|x$
$$n|ab implies n|a vee n|b$$
So, $n$ is prime ,nonzero.
In the case that $(n)=(0)$ clearly $n=0$ since there are no zero divisors in $mathbb{Z}$
$Leftarrow$] (n is prime or zero $Rightarrow $ $(n)$ is a prime ideal of $mathbb{Z}$)
Consider the case where $p is prime$ so $nneq 0, pm1$
$$ begin{aligned}
n|ab &implies n|a vee n|b \
ab in (n) &implies a in (n) vee bin(n) end{aligned}$$
in the case $n=0$, since $mathbb{Z}$ has no zero divisors
$$ab=0 implies a=0 vee b=0 $$
So (0) is a prime ideal.
Concern if this prove holds, also would be surprised if this question is not out there in this site. Did a search and clicked on similar questions and could not find it.And of course any other ways to prove it.
abstract-algebra prime-numbers ideals maximal-and-prime-ideals
abstract-algebra prime-numbers ideals maximal-and-prime-ideals
asked Dec 8 '15 at 17:24


Tiger Blood
817724
817724
1
Can you use the fact that $mathbb{Z}/(n)$ is a field if $n$ is prime?
– Brandon Thomas Van Over
Dec 8 '15 at 21:56
$Z/(n)$ is a field iff $(n)$ is a maximal. So every maximal is a prime that is $(n)$ is prime. Thanks @SirJective :)
– Tiger Blood
Dec 8 '15 at 22:06
add a comment |
1
Can you use the fact that $mathbb{Z}/(n)$ is a field if $n$ is prime?
– Brandon Thomas Van Over
Dec 8 '15 at 21:56
$Z/(n)$ is a field iff $(n)$ is a maximal. So every maximal is a prime that is $(n)$ is prime. Thanks @SirJective :)
– Tiger Blood
Dec 8 '15 at 22:06
1
1
Can you use the fact that $mathbb{Z}/(n)$ is a field if $n$ is prime?
– Brandon Thomas Van Over
Dec 8 '15 at 21:56
Can you use the fact that $mathbb{Z}/(n)$ is a field if $n$ is prime?
– Brandon Thomas Van Over
Dec 8 '15 at 21:56
$Z/(n)$ is a field iff $(n)$ is a maximal. So every maximal is a prime that is $(n)$ is prime. Thanks @SirJective :)
– Tiger Blood
Dec 8 '15 at 22:06
$Z/(n)$ is a field iff $(n)$ is a maximal. So every maximal is a prime that is $(n)$ is prime. Thanks @SirJective :)
– Tiger Blood
Dec 8 '15 at 22:06
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Another way would be to show that $mathbb{Z}$ is a principal ideal domain or that it has unique factorization. Don't you also need the definition that a prime ideal has to be properly contained within the whole ring?
If $n = pm 1$, then $langle n rangle = mathbb{Z}$ and thus it can't be a prime ideal. If $n$ is composite and divisible by some prime $p$, then $langle n rangle$ is properly contained within $langle p rangle$ and thus $langle n rangle$ is not a prime ideal either.
And then you just proceed with what you have already demonstrated.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Yes, from $p mid a iff a in (p)$ we have more generally in a commutative ring with unity, $(p)$ is a prime ideal iff $p$ is prime (in the ring theory sense: $p mid ab implies p mid a vee p mid b$)
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Another way would be to show that $mathbb{Z}$ is a principal ideal domain or that it has unique factorization. Don't you also need the definition that a prime ideal has to be properly contained within the whole ring?
If $n = pm 1$, then $langle n rangle = mathbb{Z}$ and thus it can't be a prime ideal. If $n$ is composite and divisible by some prime $p$, then $langle n rangle$ is properly contained within $langle p rangle$ and thus $langle n rangle$ is not a prime ideal either.
And then you just proceed with what you have already demonstrated.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Another way would be to show that $mathbb{Z}$ is a principal ideal domain or that it has unique factorization. Don't you also need the definition that a prime ideal has to be properly contained within the whole ring?
If $n = pm 1$, then $langle n rangle = mathbb{Z}$ and thus it can't be a prime ideal. If $n$ is composite and divisible by some prime $p$, then $langle n rangle$ is properly contained within $langle p rangle$ and thus $langle n rangle$ is not a prime ideal either.
And then you just proceed with what you have already demonstrated.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Another way would be to show that $mathbb{Z}$ is a principal ideal domain or that it has unique factorization. Don't you also need the definition that a prime ideal has to be properly contained within the whole ring?
If $n = pm 1$, then $langle n rangle = mathbb{Z}$ and thus it can't be a prime ideal. If $n$ is composite and divisible by some prime $p$, then $langle n rangle$ is properly contained within $langle p rangle$ and thus $langle n rangle$ is not a prime ideal either.
And then you just proceed with what you have already demonstrated.
Another way would be to show that $mathbb{Z}$ is a principal ideal domain or that it has unique factorization. Don't you also need the definition that a prime ideal has to be properly contained within the whole ring?
If $n = pm 1$, then $langle n rangle = mathbb{Z}$ and thus it can't be a prime ideal. If $n$ is composite and divisible by some prime $p$, then $langle n rangle$ is properly contained within $langle p rangle$ and thus $langle n rangle$ is not a prime ideal either.
And then you just proceed with what you have already demonstrated.
answered Dec 9 '15 at 3:25
Robert Soupe
10.6k21948
10.6k21948
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Yes, from $p mid a iff a in (p)$ we have more generally in a commutative ring with unity, $(p)$ is a prime ideal iff $p$ is prime (in the ring theory sense: $p mid ab implies p mid a vee p mid b$)
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Yes, from $p mid a iff a in (p)$ we have more generally in a commutative ring with unity, $(p)$ is a prime ideal iff $p$ is prime (in the ring theory sense: $p mid ab implies p mid a vee p mid b$)
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
Yes, from $p mid a iff a in (p)$ we have more generally in a commutative ring with unity, $(p)$ is a prime ideal iff $p$ is prime (in the ring theory sense: $p mid ab implies p mid a vee p mid b$)
Yes, from $p mid a iff a in (p)$ we have more generally in a commutative ring with unity, $(p)$ is a prime ideal iff $p$ is prime (in the ring theory sense: $p mid ab implies p mid a vee p mid b$)
answered 5 hours ago
qwr
6,53842654
6,53842654
add a comment |
add a comment |
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1
Can you use the fact that $mathbb{Z}/(n)$ is a field if $n$ is prime?
– Brandon Thomas Van Over
Dec 8 '15 at 21:56
$Z/(n)$ is a field iff $(n)$ is a maximal. So every maximal is a prime that is $(n)$ is prime. Thanks @SirJective :)
– Tiger Blood
Dec 8 '15 at 22:06