Estimation of relation between vertices of a triangle











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Let $hat{t}$ be the reference triangle with the vertices $hat{A_1} = (0,0)$, $hat{A_2} = (1,0)$, $hat{A_3} = (0,1)$ and let $t$ be the triangle with the vertices $A_1 = (0,0)$, $A_2 = (h_1, 0)$ and $A_3 = (0, h_2)$. Let $hat{u} := u circ F_t$, where $F_t: hat{t} to t$ denotes the affine map with $F_t(hat{A_i}) = A_i$ for i = 1, 2, 3.



In my script, I read that the following estimate holds true:
$$ |u|_{H^k (t)} leq C^k h_t^{1-k} |hat{u}|_{H^k (hat{t})}$$
where $h_t$ is the diameter of the triangle $t$.



Why does this estimate hold true?










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    Let $hat{t}$ be the reference triangle with the vertices $hat{A_1} = (0,0)$, $hat{A_2} = (1,0)$, $hat{A_3} = (0,1)$ and let $t$ be the triangle with the vertices $A_1 = (0,0)$, $A_2 = (h_1, 0)$ and $A_3 = (0, h_2)$. Let $hat{u} := u circ F_t$, where $F_t: hat{t} to t$ denotes the affine map with $F_t(hat{A_i}) = A_i$ for i = 1, 2, 3.



    In my script, I read that the following estimate holds true:
    $$ |u|_{H^k (t)} leq C^k h_t^{1-k} |hat{u}|_{H^k (hat{t})}$$
    where $h_t$ is the diameter of the triangle $t$.



    Why does this estimate hold true?










    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      Let $hat{t}$ be the reference triangle with the vertices $hat{A_1} = (0,0)$, $hat{A_2} = (1,0)$, $hat{A_3} = (0,1)$ and let $t$ be the triangle with the vertices $A_1 = (0,0)$, $A_2 = (h_1, 0)$ and $A_3 = (0, h_2)$. Let $hat{u} := u circ F_t$, where $F_t: hat{t} to t$ denotes the affine map with $F_t(hat{A_i}) = A_i$ for i = 1, 2, 3.



      In my script, I read that the following estimate holds true:
      $$ |u|_{H^k (t)} leq C^k h_t^{1-k} |hat{u}|_{H^k (hat{t})}$$
      where $h_t$ is the diameter of the triangle $t$.



      Why does this estimate hold true?










      share|cite|improve this question













      Let $hat{t}$ be the reference triangle with the vertices $hat{A_1} = (0,0)$, $hat{A_2} = (1,0)$, $hat{A_3} = (0,1)$ and let $t$ be the triangle with the vertices $A_1 = (0,0)$, $A_2 = (h_1, 0)$ and $A_3 = (0, h_2)$. Let $hat{u} := u circ F_t$, where $F_t: hat{t} to t$ denotes the affine map with $F_t(hat{A_i}) = A_i$ for i = 1, 2, 3.



      In my script, I read that the following estimate holds true:
      $$ |u|_{H^k (t)} leq C^k h_t^{1-k} |hat{u}|_{H^k (hat{t})}$$
      where $h_t$ is the diameter of the triangle $t$.



      Why does this estimate hold true?







      geometry numerical-methods estimation triangulation






      share|cite|improve this question













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      asked 6 hours ago









      StMan

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