Giving a proof to the weak compactness of the unity ball in a reflexive normed space











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So, I am trying to prove that if $X$ is a normed and reflexive space, its unity ball, that is $B$=$lbrace xin X : parallel xparallel =1rbrace$, is weakly compact.



For that matter, I have already proven that:




  1. $J:X longrightarrow X''$ the natural embedding is continuous provided that $X$ has the $tau_{d}$ topology (that is, the initial topology of $X'$) and $X''$ with $tau_{d}^{''}*$


  2. If $X$ is reflexive, $J$ is an homeomorphism (with respect the previous topologies).



My idea is to use Alaoglu-Bourbaki's theorem,which stablishes that the unity ball in $X'$ is weakly* compact, and use that the image of a compact is a compact through a continuous function.



Therefore, my problem is: if $B$=$lbrace xin X : parallel xparallel =1rbrace$ is a subset of $X'$, how do I relate it? I mean, I just do not know how to finish the argument, which I feel to be very close to me.



Also, I have checked Using the Banach-Alaoglu Theorem to show that if $X$ is reflexive then $B_X$ is weakly compact. but I think it uses the algebraic dual, or I just don't fully understand his proof.



Thank you in advance.










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  • This is a theorem of Kakutani, proved in the answer. I have not seen a proof that does not use dual spaces.
    – Matematleta
    2 days ago















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












So, I am trying to prove that if $X$ is a normed and reflexive space, its unity ball, that is $B$=$lbrace xin X : parallel xparallel =1rbrace$, is weakly compact.



For that matter, I have already proven that:




  1. $J:X longrightarrow X''$ the natural embedding is continuous provided that $X$ has the $tau_{d}$ topology (that is, the initial topology of $X'$) and $X''$ with $tau_{d}^{''}*$


  2. If $X$ is reflexive, $J$ is an homeomorphism (with respect the previous topologies).



My idea is to use Alaoglu-Bourbaki's theorem,which stablishes that the unity ball in $X'$ is weakly* compact, and use that the image of a compact is a compact through a continuous function.



Therefore, my problem is: if $B$=$lbrace xin X : parallel xparallel =1rbrace$ is a subset of $X'$, how do I relate it? I mean, I just do not know how to finish the argument, which I feel to be very close to me.



Also, I have checked Using the Banach-Alaoglu Theorem to show that if $X$ is reflexive then $B_X$ is weakly compact. but I think it uses the algebraic dual, or I just don't fully understand his proof.



Thank you in advance.










share|cite|improve this question







New contributor




Juan Zaragoza Chichell is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.




















  • This is a theorem of Kakutani, proved in the answer. I have not seen a proof that does not use dual spaces.
    – Matematleta
    2 days ago













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











So, I am trying to prove that if $X$ is a normed and reflexive space, its unity ball, that is $B$=$lbrace xin X : parallel xparallel =1rbrace$, is weakly compact.



For that matter, I have already proven that:




  1. $J:X longrightarrow X''$ the natural embedding is continuous provided that $X$ has the $tau_{d}$ topology (that is, the initial topology of $X'$) and $X''$ with $tau_{d}^{''}*$


  2. If $X$ is reflexive, $J$ is an homeomorphism (with respect the previous topologies).



My idea is to use Alaoglu-Bourbaki's theorem,which stablishes that the unity ball in $X'$ is weakly* compact, and use that the image of a compact is a compact through a continuous function.



Therefore, my problem is: if $B$=$lbrace xin X : parallel xparallel =1rbrace$ is a subset of $X'$, how do I relate it? I mean, I just do not know how to finish the argument, which I feel to be very close to me.



Also, I have checked Using the Banach-Alaoglu Theorem to show that if $X$ is reflexive then $B_X$ is weakly compact. but I think it uses the algebraic dual, or I just don't fully understand his proof.



Thank you in advance.










share|cite|improve this question







New contributor




Juan Zaragoza Chichell is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











So, I am trying to prove that if $X$ is a normed and reflexive space, its unity ball, that is $B$=$lbrace xin X : parallel xparallel =1rbrace$, is weakly compact.



For that matter, I have already proven that:




  1. $J:X longrightarrow X''$ the natural embedding is continuous provided that $X$ has the $tau_{d}$ topology (that is, the initial topology of $X'$) and $X''$ with $tau_{d}^{''}*$


  2. If $X$ is reflexive, $J$ is an homeomorphism (with respect the previous topologies).



My idea is to use Alaoglu-Bourbaki's theorem,which stablishes that the unity ball in $X'$ is weakly* compact, and use that the image of a compact is a compact through a continuous function.



Therefore, my problem is: if $B$=$lbrace xin X : parallel xparallel =1rbrace$ is a subset of $X'$, how do I relate it? I mean, I just do not know how to finish the argument, which I feel to be very close to me.



Also, I have checked Using the Banach-Alaoglu Theorem to show that if $X$ is reflexive then $B_X$ is weakly compact. but I think it uses the algebraic dual, or I just don't fully understand his proof.



Thank you in advance.







general-topology functional-analysis normed-spaces reflexive-space






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New contributor




Juan Zaragoza Chichell is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











share|cite|improve this question







New contributor




Juan Zaragoza Chichell is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









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Juan Zaragoza Chichell is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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asked 2 days ago









Juan Zaragoza Chichell

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New contributor




Juan Zaragoza Chichell is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.





New contributor





Juan Zaragoza Chichell is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






Juan Zaragoza Chichell is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.












  • This is a theorem of Kakutani, proved in the answer. I have not seen a proof that does not use dual spaces.
    – Matematleta
    2 days ago


















  • This is a theorem of Kakutani, proved in the answer. I have not seen a proof that does not use dual spaces.
    – Matematleta
    2 days ago
















This is a theorem of Kakutani, proved in the answer. I have not seen a proof that does not use dual spaces.
– Matematleta
2 days ago




This is a theorem of Kakutani, proved in the answer. I have not seen a proof that does not use dual spaces.
– Matematleta
2 days ago










1 Answer
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oldest

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up vote
1
down vote













Here is a rather detailed proof.



If $X$ is reflexive, the natural embedding $J:Xto X''$
is an isometric isomorphism. In particular, the weak topology on $X$, that is, the topology $sigma(X,X')$, is identical to the weak topology on $X''$, that is, the topology $sigma(X'',X''')$. Let $B_X$ denote the unit ball of $X$. Then $J(B_X)$ is the unit ball of $X''$. By Alaoglu's theorem (Bourbaki had nothing to do with it), the unit ball of $X''$ is compact in the $sigma(X'',I(X'))$ topology, where $I$ is the natural embedding of $X'$ into $X'''$. But $I:X'to X'''$ is an injective isometry, so if a set is compact in the $sigma(X'',I(X'))$ topology then clearly it is also compact in the larger topology $sigma(X'',X''')$. Therefore, the unit ball of $X''$ is compact in the $sigma(X'',X''')$ topology, and therefore its inverse image under the homomorphism $J$, namely, $B_X$, is compact in the weak topology of $X$.






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  • I am sorry for asking this, but I'm definitely not proficient in topology or functional analysis: why is the weak topology on $X$ identical to the weak topology on $X''$ provided J is an homeomorphism? Also, where do you use the weak* topology? That last thing might be a notation issue.
    – Juan Zaragoza Chichell
    yesterday











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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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active

oldest

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active

oldest

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active

oldest

votes








up vote
1
down vote













Here is a rather detailed proof.



If $X$ is reflexive, the natural embedding $J:Xto X''$
is an isometric isomorphism. In particular, the weak topology on $X$, that is, the topology $sigma(X,X')$, is identical to the weak topology on $X''$, that is, the topology $sigma(X'',X''')$. Let $B_X$ denote the unit ball of $X$. Then $J(B_X)$ is the unit ball of $X''$. By Alaoglu's theorem (Bourbaki had nothing to do with it), the unit ball of $X''$ is compact in the $sigma(X'',I(X'))$ topology, where $I$ is the natural embedding of $X'$ into $X'''$. But $I:X'to X'''$ is an injective isometry, so if a set is compact in the $sigma(X'',I(X'))$ topology then clearly it is also compact in the larger topology $sigma(X'',X''')$. Therefore, the unit ball of $X''$ is compact in the $sigma(X'',X''')$ topology, and therefore its inverse image under the homomorphism $J$, namely, $B_X$, is compact in the weak topology of $X$.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • I am sorry for asking this, but I'm definitely not proficient in topology or functional analysis: why is the weak topology on $X$ identical to the weak topology on $X''$ provided J is an homeomorphism? Also, where do you use the weak* topology? That last thing might be a notation issue.
    – Juan Zaragoza Chichell
    yesterday















up vote
1
down vote













Here is a rather detailed proof.



If $X$ is reflexive, the natural embedding $J:Xto X''$
is an isometric isomorphism. In particular, the weak topology on $X$, that is, the topology $sigma(X,X')$, is identical to the weak topology on $X''$, that is, the topology $sigma(X'',X''')$. Let $B_X$ denote the unit ball of $X$. Then $J(B_X)$ is the unit ball of $X''$. By Alaoglu's theorem (Bourbaki had nothing to do with it), the unit ball of $X''$ is compact in the $sigma(X'',I(X'))$ topology, where $I$ is the natural embedding of $X'$ into $X'''$. But $I:X'to X'''$ is an injective isometry, so if a set is compact in the $sigma(X'',I(X'))$ topology then clearly it is also compact in the larger topology $sigma(X'',X''')$. Therefore, the unit ball of $X''$ is compact in the $sigma(X'',X''')$ topology, and therefore its inverse image under the homomorphism $J$, namely, $B_X$, is compact in the weak topology of $X$.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • I am sorry for asking this, but I'm definitely not proficient in topology or functional analysis: why is the weak topology on $X$ identical to the weak topology on $X''$ provided J is an homeomorphism? Also, where do you use the weak* topology? That last thing might be a notation issue.
    – Juan Zaragoza Chichell
    yesterday













up vote
1
down vote










up vote
1
down vote









Here is a rather detailed proof.



If $X$ is reflexive, the natural embedding $J:Xto X''$
is an isometric isomorphism. In particular, the weak topology on $X$, that is, the topology $sigma(X,X')$, is identical to the weak topology on $X''$, that is, the topology $sigma(X'',X''')$. Let $B_X$ denote the unit ball of $X$. Then $J(B_X)$ is the unit ball of $X''$. By Alaoglu's theorem (Bourbaki had nothing to do with it), the unit ball of $X''$ is compact in the $sigma(X'',I(X'))$ topology, where $I$ is the natural embedding of $X'$ into $X'''$. But $I:X'to X'''$ is an injective isometry, so if a set is compact in the $sigma(X'',I(X'))$ topology then clearly it is also compact in the larger topology $sigma(X'',X''')$. Therefore, the unit ball of $X''$ is compact in the $sigma(X'',X''')$ topology, and therefore its inverse image under the homomorphism $J$, namely, $B_X$, is compact in the weak topology of $X$.






share|cite|improve this answer














Here is a rather detailed proof.



If $X$ is reflexive, the natural embedding $J:Xto X''$
is an isometric isomorphism. In particular, the weak topology on $X$, that is, the topology $sigma(X,X')$, is identical to the weak topology on $X''$, that is, the topology $sigma(X'',X''')$. Let $B_X$ denote the unit ball of $X$. Then $J(B_X)$ is the unit ball of $X''$. By Alaoglu's theorem (Bourbaki had nothing to do with it), the unit ball of $X''$ is compact in the $sigma(X'',I(X'))$ topology, where $I$ is the natural embedding of $X'$ into $X'''$. But $I:X'to X'''$ is an injective isometry, so if a set is compact in the $sigma(X'',I(X'))$ topology then clearly it is also compact in the larger topology $sigma(X'',X''')$. Therefore, the unit ball of $X''$ is compact in the $sigma(X'',X''')$ topology, and therefore its inverse image under the homomorphism $J$, namely, $B_X$, is compact in the weak topology of $X$.







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share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited 2 days ago

























answered 2 days ago









uniquesolution

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  • I am sorry for asking this, but I'm definitely not proficient in topology or functional analysis: why is the weak topology on $X$ identical to the weak topology on $X''$ provided J is an homeomorphism? Also, where do you use the weak* topology? That last thing might be a notation issue.
    – Juan Zaragoza Chichell
    yesterday


















  • I am sorry for asking this, but I'm definitely not proficient in topology or functional analysis: why is the weak topology on $X$ identical to the weak topology on $X''$ provided J is an homeomorphism? Also, where do you use the weak* topology? That last thing might be a notation issue.
    – Juan Zaragoza Chichell
    yesterday
















I am sorry for asking this, but I'm definitely not proficient in topology or functional analysis: why is the weak topology on $X$ identical to the weak topology on $X''$ provided J is an homeomorphism? Also, where do you use the weak* topology? That last thing might be a notation issue.
– Juan Zaragoza Chichell
yesterday




I am sorry for asking this, but I'm definitely not proficient in topology or functional analysis: why is the weak topology on $X$ identical to the weak topology on $X''$ provided J is an homeomorphism? Also, where do you use the weak* topology? That last thing might be a notation issue.
– Juan Zaragoza Chichell
yesterday










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